65 questions every Jehovah's Witness should be asked using the
These questions have been put together using information from
many different sources. All verses are from the NWT so that the translation of
these verses cannot be questioned by Jehovah's Witnesses. If the Watchtower
Society decides to change any of these verses (like they did with Heb 1:6), then
the obvious question for the individual Jehovah's Witness is why did the WTS
change their own Bible."...keep testing whether you are in the faith" (2Cor
- The WTS claims it uses the Bible as it's "supreme authority". Where in
the Bible does anyone count their time in preaching on a slip of paper and
are assigned record cards of activity, determining this as a "gauge to their
spirituality"? Where in the Bible are Pioneers, Auxiliary Pioneers, District
Overseers, Circuit Overseers, Bethelites, and Kingdom Halls?
- To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18-19?
In Jn 2:21 John clearly states that when Jesus used the term "this temple",
he was referring to his body. If what the WTS teaches about Jesus' body
after his death is correct, then how do you explain these verses?
- If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal "active force", why does he speak
directly and refer to himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
- Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that"... All [other] things have
been created through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus were Michael the Archangel
at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for himself?
Isa 43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN glory ..."
- The WTS claims that Ezekial's prophecy of the Jews returning to their
land is fulfilled in their organization. Ezek 36:24, 28 says "and I will
take you out of the nations and collect you together out of all the lands
and bring you in upon your own soil" and "You will certainly dwell in the
land that I gave to your forefathers, and you must become my people and I
myself shall become your God." If this is fulfilled in the Watchtower
organization, then how are they returning to the land of CANAAN as promised
to the forefathers? Ps 105:8-11
- Consider also what is said concerning those who fulfill this prophecy.
Ezek 36:22 says, "Therefore, say to the house of Israel, this is what the
sovereign Lord Jehovah has said: 'not for your sakes I am doing [it] 0 house
of Israel but for my holy name, which you have PROFANED among the nations
where you have come in." Since the WTS claims that it is spiritual Israel
and fulfils these prophecies in Ezekial, how do Jehovah's Witnesses believe
they have profaned God's name among the nations?
- Since the WTS prohibits the use of blood transfusions, why does it
permit the infusion of albumin, clotting factors, and gamma globulins, all
of which are derived from human blood? Since Acts 15:29 clearly refers to
the old Jewish law of not EATING blood (Gen 9:4, Lev 3:17, Deut 12:16), and
since the WTS has changed its teachings so many times on major issues like
organ transplantation, the definition of "generation", the year of
Armageddon, etc, etc, and simply calls these changes "New Light", how can
you be sure they won't some day change their teachings on blood transfusions
and refer to the change as "New Light" also?
- Does Prov 4:18 really justify an organization replacing doctrines and
failed prophecies with new doctrines and prophecies, or does it simply
contrast the benefit to the "righteous" of obeying a wise father (Prov
4:10-19)? False teachings can be called "false words" and Prov 13:5 says, "A
false word is what the righteous hates..." When the WTS changes a teaching
to something that is totally different, is it like a light that is getting
brighter and brighter or more like having one false light (word) completely
turned off and a totally different light turned on? Do you think the WTS
would be critical of any other organization that changed its teachings as
many times on as many different issues over the last 100 years as the WTS
- Regarding Jesus' return to earth, Jehovah's Witnesses believe that it
occurred in l914 as an invisible return. That event is described in
Zechariah 14:4, which states, "... and his feet will actually stand in that
day upon the mountain of the olive trees which is in front of Jerusalem on
the east." If Jesus has no body and if his return was invisible, how do you
explain this verse?
- Paul said, "... for as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup,
you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives." (1Cor 11:26).
If Christ arrived in 1914, why do Jehovah's Witnesses continue to partake of
the bread and wine? Shouldn't they have stopped in 1914?
- Since the WTS claims "apostolic succession", can it trace its roots all
the way back to Christ (Mt 16:18)? If so, who was it that "passed the torch
of God's spirit" to C. T. Russell when he founded the organization? What was
the name of this individual or individuals?
- The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the
word was a god." How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god' if God says in Deut
32:39, "See now that I -- I am he, and there are NO gods together with
- The WTS teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If
chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible
say that the 144,000 will come from? See Rev 7: 5-8.
- Since the WTS currently rejects most of the teachings of its founder,
Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization from 1879-1916),
and since they also reject "judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded
Russell as president from 1916-1942, how can you be sure that in 25 more
years, the WTS won't reject the current president, Milton Henschel
(1992-present), as they did Russell and Rutherford? What kind of confidence
can you have in an organization that rejected its founder and first two
presidents for the first 63 years of its existence - over 50% of the time
they have existed?!
- If there is no conscious awareness after death, how could the "spirits
in prison", who lived during the time of Noah, be preached to by Christ
after His death (I Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good news be "declared
even unto the dead" (I Pet 4:5-6)?
- Since the WTS has received "new light" regarding the 1914 generation,
and completely changed their views on this, does this mean that all the
former Witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the same view the
organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted back into
fellowship again? Were these ex-Witnesses in fact disfellowshipped for what
is now taught as "the Truth"?
- If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope,
and a great crowd of people who have another hope of everlasting life on
paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4),
instead of two?
- On pgs. 66, 69, 211, 423, 560, 648, and 719 of Jehovah's
Witnesses--Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, reference is made to The
Finished Mystery, which was the 7th of the Studies in the Scriptures
series published by the WTS in 1917 (pg 66, 719), and was the major
publication of the WTS at that time. On pgs. 88, 648, and 651, a picture of
this book appears, complete with the winged disk symbol of the Egyptian sun
god Ra on its front cover. Is it true that The Finished Mystery
taught that Christ was the Almighty of Rev 1:8 (pg 15), that Christ
established a "Church" (pg 17), that Christ returned invisibly in 1874 (pg
54, 60, 68). that the Holy Spirit has a personality (pg 57), that the great
pyramid of Giza was God's stone witness and was used to predict the year of
Armageddon (pg 60), that Armageddon would definitely occur in the spring of
1918 (pg 62), that Christ was crucified (pg 68), that Leviathan of the Bible
refers to the steam locomotive (pg 85), and that Michael is the Pope of Rome
and the angels are his bishops (pg 188)? According to "current" WTS
teachings, Christ returned invisibly in 1914 and in 1918 chose the WTS as
his earthly organization because they were the only ones teaching "the
Truth". If this was so, then Jesus would have known the teachings of the WTS
as put forth in The Finished Mystery, published in 1917. Do you
really think that Jesus would have chosen an organization which taught so
many things that were not correct according to "current" WTS teachings and
are no longer taught as "the truth"?
- In Jn 20:28, John refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho
theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me".
Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this
realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why
didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a
- If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then how will he be
seen by "ALL the tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30), and by "EVERY eye" (Rev
1:7) when he returns? How can Christ "APPEAR" a second time (Heb 9:28) if he
will not have a visible return to earth?
- In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the great crowd will be?
- If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, how could he: Be
referred to as "he" and "him" in Jn 16:7- 8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness
(Jn 15:26); Feel hurt (Isa 63:10); Be blasphemed against (Mk 3:29); Say
things (Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, and Heb 10:15-17): Desire (Gal
5:17); Be outraged (Heb 10:29); Search (I Cor 2:10); Comfort (Acts 9:31); Be
loved (Rom 15:30); Be lied to and be God (Acts 5:3-4)?
- What is the correct spelling of God's proper name, "Yahweh" or
"Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that "Yahweh" is more proper, why
do they misspell it "Jehovah"? If the name of God is so important, then
should you not only pronounce it correctly, but spell it correctly too?
- Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa 44:24, God says
that he "by myself created the heavens and the earth" and asks the question
"Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth were created. How can this
be since if Jesus had been created by God, then he would have been with God
when everything else was created?
- If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the
body and the soul in Mt 10:28?
- In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word "other" 4 times even though it
is not in the original Greek (See Gr- Engl Interlinear). Why is the word
"other" inserted? How would these verses read if the word "other" had not
been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See
- In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other" even though it doesn't
appear in the original Greek (See Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason
for inserting this word? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Exo 6:3, Ps
83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not
been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See
Prov 30:5-6. If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name,
why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for
the sake of his (Jesus') name, instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk
21:12,17, Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)? If the name "Jehovah" is so important,
then why does Acts 4:12 say, "There is salvation in no one else; for there
is not another name [vs 10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given
among men, by which we must get saved"? If the teachings of the WTS are
correct, would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the
name "YHWH" or "Jehovah"? Since the word "Jehovah" didn't appear until at
least the 12th century, and since the term "Jehovah's Witnesses" wasn't used
by the WTS until the early 1930's, doesn't this mean that the first century
Christians were not known as "Jehovah's Witnesses"?
- The WTS makes the claim, "Like the Primitive Christian Community - the
religious publication 'Interpretation' stated in July 1956: 'In their
organization and witnessing work, they [Jehovah's Witnesses] come as close
as any group to approximating the primitive Christian community..."-
Jehovah's Witnesses- Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, pg 234, and on pg 677
of the same book, a caption appears titled "Like the early Christians". Do
Jehovah's Witnesses pray the "Our Father" (Mt 6:9-13), break bread together
(celebrate the Eucharist) frequently (1Cor 10:16-17, 1Cor 11:26-27), come
together on Sunday to break bread (Acts 20:7), confirm the Holy Spirit by
the laying on of hands (Acts 8:15-17, 19:5-6, Heb 6:2, 2Tim 1:6), ordain
(appoint) priests (elders) through the laying on of hands (Acts 6:5-6,
13:2-3), pray to Jesus (Mt 11:28, Acts 7:59-60, 1Cor 16:22-23, Rev 22:20),
anoint the sick with oil (Mk 6:12-13, Jas 5:14), often kneel down to pray
(Acts 9:40, 20:36, 21:5, Lk 22:41), consider themselves to be witnesses of
Christ (Acts 1:8, 10:39, 13:31), have deacons (1Tim 3:8, 10, 12), fast from
than Jesus Christ (Acts 4:10-12), celebrate Pentecost (Acts 2:1, 20:16, 1Cor
16:8), have special people that look after widows and orphans (Acts 6:1-4,
Jas 1:27), occaisionally drink wine (1Tim 5:23)? If not, then how can
Jehovah's Witnesses consider themselves to be like the primitive Christian
- In Rev 14:13, how can the dead be "happy" and find "rest", if there is
no conscious awareness after death?
- Is it true that the WTS's prophecy that Armageddon will come before "the
end of the generation of 1914" (You Can Live Forever In Paradise On Earth,
pg 154), is no longer taught as "the Truth"? If so, then does this mean that
this teaching of the WTS, which they have taught as "the Truth" for decades,
was really a false teaching? Since the WTS claims that they are the "one
channel that the Lord is using during the last days of this system of
things" (Jehovah's Witnesses-Proclaimers of God's Kingdom, pg 626)
and that the governing body is "the mouthpiece of Jehovah God", does this
mean that God changed His mind about this teaching and the definition of
"generation"? Is it possible that God could change His mind? Has the WTS
ever changed their mind before about a teaching that they once taught as
"the Truth"? The WTS has taught that Armageddon was going to occur in:
1914 - The Time Is At Hand, 1888 (1911 ed.), pg 101; Zion 's
Watchtower, 1/15/1892, pg22
1918 - The Finished Mystery, 1917, pg 62, 485
1925 - Millions Now Living Will Never Die, 1920, pg 89-90,
Watchtower, 7/15/24, pg 211
WWII - Watchtower, 9/15/41, pg 288
1975 - Kingdom Ministry, 6/69, pg 3; AWAKE!, 10/8/68, etc.
Before the end of the generation of 1914 - You Can Live Forever In
Paradise On Earth, pg 154; A WAKE} 10/8/95, pg 4
Since the WTS claimed that their teaching that Armageddon would come before
"the end of the generation of 1914" was "Jehovah's prophetic word" (WT,
5/15/84, pg 6) and "the Creator's promise" (AWAKE! 10/8/95. 9/22/95, 9/8/95,
etc. pg 4), therefore speaking "in the name of God" (Deut 18:22), then
according to Deut 18:20- 22, doesn't this mean that the WTS is truly a
modern day false prophet? See Mt 7:15, 24:11, Mk 13:22, 2Pet 2:1, 1Jn 4:1,
- If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never used in the
entire Greek New Testament? If men edited out the proper name of God,
"YHWH", when they copied the New Testament, as only the WTS claims, thereby
altering God's word, then how can we have confidence in ANY of the New
Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the WTS as unreliable?
- If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over
his head, as only the WTS teaches, why does Jn 20:25 say "... unless I see
in his hands the print of the nailS...", indicating that there was more than
one nail used for his hands? Two nails would have been used if he was
crucified on a cross.
- Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with other Witnesses
opinions that differ from orthodox WTS teachings? If no, why not?
- The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as "is" in almost every
instance in the New Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc). See
Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate the same Greek word as
"means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in
the translation of the word "esti"? If the NWT were consistent and
translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would these
verses say? Why did so many of Jesus' disciples leave him when he told them
they must eat his body in order to have eternal life? See Jn 6:25-69, Mt
- Rev 20:10 says, "And the Devil... the wild beast and the false prophet
[already were]; and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever".
Where will the Devil, the wild beast, and the false prophet be "tormented
day and night forever and ever"? Likewise, Rev 14:9-11 says, "... If anyone
worship the wild beast... he shall be tormented with fire and sulphur... And
the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever..." Where could "anyone"
be "tormented... forever and ever"?
- Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6 ("For there has
been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us... And his name
will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God..."). Jehovah is referred to
as "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be if there is only ONE God?
- If the WTS claims they are not "inspired" but does refer to themselves
as "God's spirit-directed Prophet", what is the difference? Is there such a
thing as an "uninspired prophet"? Why would anyone be part of a religious
organization which claimed that their teachings were NOT inspired?
- In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" is used in reference
to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20,
etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is
translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9,28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.),
even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear).
Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan" used with reference to God
in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to Christ in Mt
14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency? If the
NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the
verses above referring to Christ read?
- The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than 25
times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19,
Col 1:10, lThess5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah"
translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not
consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor
12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1. and Rev 22:21 (see Gr- Engl Interlinear)?
- The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" as "I am" every time it
appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it
is translated as "I have been". What is the reason for the inconsistency in
this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is
translated in every other verse in which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read?
See Exo 3:14.
- In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of
himself," I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the
beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who "became dead,
but, look! I am living forever and ever", refers to himself as the first and
the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the
Omega, the beginning and the end .,.". God is also referred to as the
"first" and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be since by
definition of these words there can only be one first and one last?
- Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you,..." over 50 times in the
Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time
except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is
the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? If the
translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation
of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see
concordance), and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it
- Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into existence
through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence". How
could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence
through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus
would have had to create himself.
- If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why
does IThess 4:17 say, "...we the living who are surviving will, together
with them, be caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we
shall always be with the Lord"?
- If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did
Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake
of his (Jesus') name instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12, 17,
Jn 15:2 and Acts 9:16)?
- In Mt 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that has been given the
name which means "With Us Is God"?
- The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hos 13:4, Isa 43:11,45:21,
etc.). How can it be then, that the Bible repeatedly says that Jesus Christ
is our savior (Lk 2:11, Phil 3:20. Tit 2:13, 3:6, 2Pet 1:1, 2:20, 3:18,
- Referring to Isa 14:9-17, if there is no conscious awareness after
death, how could Sheol "... become agitated at you in order to meet you on
coming in..." (v.9), how could the souls in Sheol "... speak up and say to
you..." (v.10-11), how could the souls in Sheol when "...seeing you will
gaze even at you; they will give close examination even to you, [saying,]
This this the man'..." (v. 16-17), and how would you be aware that this was
- Heb 3:1 refers to "holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling". In
Mk 3:35, Jesus says, "Whoever does the will of God, this one is my
brother..." Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does the will of God
is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling. How can this
be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go to heaven?
- Heb 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful people of the Old
Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they are reaching out
for a better [place], that is, one belonging to heaven..." and,"... their
God for he has made a city ready for them." The footnote on the word "city"
refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Heb 12:22 and Rev 21:2. How can this be
since according to the teachings of the Watchtower Society, the only people
who will go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed who have been chosen
from people who lived after Christ died?
- In Lk 24:36-39 and in Jn 20:26-27, Jesus showed his disciples the wounds
in his body as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body had been destroyed
by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples his body which had
the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he is not just a
spirit, "because a spirit does not have flesh and bones just as you behold
that I have" (Lk 24:39)?
- If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God (Prov 8:1-4, 12,
22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God would have had to
have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could have ever been
- Rev 7:11 says that "before the throne" is in heaven where "all the
angels were standing". Rev 14:2-3 says "And I heard a sound out of heaven
... And they were singing as if a new song before the throne ...". Rev 7:9
says,"... look, a great crowd ... standing before the throne...". Rev
7:14-15 says, "...There are the ones that come out of the great tribulation
... That is why they are before the throne of God ..." Therefore, if "before
the throne " means in heaven (Rev 7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great crowd" is
"before the throne" (Rev 7:9, 7:14-15), where does that mean that the great
crowd will be?
- In Lk 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob be "all living to
him (God)", since they all died hundreds of years before Jesus said this?
- If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the "souls" of Rev 6:9-
11, who were of those who had been "slaughtered" (i.e., killed), cry out
"with a loud voice, saying: 'Until when Sovereign Lord ..."?
- In Mt 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to baptize "people of all the
nations ...in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit".
Why would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name of anybody or
anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the command of Jesus
and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy
- If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go out of a person
(Gen 35:18) or come back into a person (1 Kings 17:21)?
- The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will never be destroyed or
depopulated. How can it be, then, that God says in Isa 51:6,"... the earth
itself will wear out, and its inhabitants will die like a mere gnat...", and
that Jesus says in Mt 24:35, "Heaven and earth will pass away...", and that
John says in Rev 21:1 that he saw"... a new heaven and a NEW earth, for the
former heaven and the FORMER earth had passed away, and the sea is NO
- Referring to Lk 12:4-5, what would be left of a person after they were
killed that could be thrown into Gehenna?
- Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Phil 1:19, Gal 4:6, Rom 8:9)
refer to? In Gal 4:6, how is it possible that the spirit of Christ could
come into our hearts? How is it possible that the spirit of CHRIST could
reside in someone? If what the Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could
Paul make this statement if Christ was a spirit person residing in heaven?
- In Jn 8:56, Jesus says, "Abraham your father rejoiced greatly in the
prospect of seeing my day, and he saw it and rejoiced". Since Abraham died
hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say that Abraham
"saw it and rejoiced", if there is no conscious awareness after death?
- In Jn 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat "of this bread" in order
to "live forever", and that "the bread that I give IS my flesh". In Jn 6:63,
Jesus says "... Unless you eat the flesh of the son of man and drink his
blood, you have no life in yourselves." In Jn 6:54-55, Jesus says, "He that
feeds on my flesh and drinks my blood has everlasting life..." and "... for
my flesh is true food and my blood is true drink." Do you partake of the
flesh of Christ, as Jesus commanded, in order to have life in yourself and
in order to live forever?
- In Acts 17:31 Paul says, "Because he has set a day in which he purposes
to judge the inhabited earth in righteousness by a MAN whom he has
appointed, and he has furnished a guarantee to all men in that he has
resurrected him from the dead". Did Paul believe that the future judge of
the world, Jesus Christ, would be an immortal MAN or an invisible spirit
- The WTS teaches that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob will not reside with
Christ in his heavenly kingdom. How then do you explain Mt 8:11 in which
Jesus says," But I tell you that many from eastern parts and western parts
will come and recline at the table with Abraham and Isaac and Jacob in the
kingdom of the heavens"?
- Every true Christian would agree that we should follow the commands of
God. In Mk 9:7, God the Father commands us to listen to Jesus. Do you follow
this command and listen to Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your personal
sins (1Jn 2:2, 1Pet 2:24). Jesus tells us to go directly to him (Mt
11:28-30), and the Father commanded us to listen to Jesus. Why? Because
JESUS gives us everlasting life (Jn 10:28), and so that JESUS will enter our
house and be with us and give us the right to sit on his throne (Rev 3:20-
21). Do you pray to Jesus as Paul and the early Christians did (1Cor 1:2)?
Do you partake of the flesh of Christ as Jesus commanded (Jn 6:51)? If not,
then are you following the command of the Father who said "Listen to him"?